Growth observably correlates with decreased inequality. That doesn't imply that it causes that reduced inequality; But it does imply that it's not making inequality worse.
Cite?
Much evidence points in the exact opposite direction. I'll summarize some Illustrations from Piketty's famous and highly respected book.
[Figure I.1] In 1920 the top decile of U.S. had 38% of national income. The 1920's were a roaring boom, with that statistic peaking at 48% in 1928. The figure was 32% in 1944 -- the early 1940's were an economic "boom" but the high production went to overseas military, not to rich capitalists. Inequality went up during the Reagan years, but was still only 39% in 1991. By 2007, after big booms (or bubbles) it was 49%, slightly beating the 1928 peak. We enjoy high growth right now, and Piketty expects income inequality to continue this upward trend.
[Figure 10.5] In 1810 the top decile of U.S. had 25% of total wealth. This was 32% in 1870 and 45% in 1910. The period 1870-1910 was a period of major industrial growth.
Piketty's Figure 11.11 is interesting. It answers the question "What percentage of a [French] generation inherits wealth equivalent to a lifetime's of earning by a laborer?" This was 2% for those born ca 1920, and is projected to be 15% for those born ca 2030.