What is the meaning of the goofy "Rejection at Nazareth" story?
Matthew 13
57 And they were offended in him. But Jesus said unto them, A prophet is not without honour, save in his own country, and in his own house.
58 And he did not many mighty works there because of their unbelief.
So, where are we going with this? Is this just supposed to be today's devotional Bible verse, to be recited reverentially without any comment?
Is the point supposed to be the "he did not many mighty works there"? meaning the miracle claims are fiction, because this verse says he didn't do "mighty works there"?
If you take this passage at face value, it clearly implies that Jesus did perform miracle acts at other times and places than this one occasion.
But there is something wrong with this passage. First, we have a saying here which makes no sense:
But Jesus said unto them, A prophet is not without honour, save in his own country, and in his own house.
Where does this come from?
This saying is contained in ALL FOUR of the Gospels, not just Matthew. Plus also even in the Gospel of Thomas.
But nothing like it is found anywhere else in all the ancient literature. And, there is nothing in the ancient literature or history to suggest any pattern of prophets being without honor or rejected in their own country.
Who were the ancient "prophets"?
In addition to Moses, Samuel, Jeremiah, and other Hebrew prophets, there are also "prophets" like Lao-Tse, Zoroaster, Confucius, Gautama, Krishna. And there is no pattern of them being without honor in their home country.
Perhaps by an extreme stretch you could say Socrates was a "prophet" dishonored in his home town, since the authorities tried and executed him. But obviously he was much more honored in Athens than dishonored. Surely this one case cannot be any basis for this saying. The saying simply makes no sense and seems to contradict our known history of prophets in general.
So if you want to make something out of this verse, you need to explain why it offers us this saying which contradicts our knowledge and common sense. The saying must have circulated as something spoken by Jesus, but it could have been falsely attributed to him.
The saying has to be early, and was probably circulating long before the Gospels we know were written. So it has an early-origin authenticity to it, and yet there's no need to assume Jesus actually spoke it.
But there's more that's wrong with this passage:
And he did not many mighty works there because of their unbelief.
The sentence here contradicts the text 3 lines earlier:
54 and coming to his own country he taught them in their synagogue, so that they were astonished, and said, "Where did this man get this wisdom and these mighty works? . . .
"mighty works"? This says he did perform "mighty works" there, while vs. 58 says he did not.
. . . 55 Is not this the carpenter's son? Is not his mother called Mary? And are not his brothers James and Joseph and Simon and Judas? 56 And are not all his sisters with us? Where then did this man get all this?" 57 And they took offense at him. But Jesus said to them, "A prophet is not without honor except in his own country and in his own house." 58 And he did not do many mighty works there, because of their unbelief.
The Mark version (5:1-5) contains the same contradiction:
1 He went away from there and came to his own country; and his disciples followed him. 2 And on the sabbath he began to teach in the synagogue; and many who heard him were astonished, saying, "Where did this man get all this? What is the wisdom given to him? What mighty works are wrought by his hands!
This says he did "mighty works," while 3 lines farther down it says he could not, though adding as an afterthought that he healed "a few sick people":
3 Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary and brother of James and Joses and Judas and Simon, and are not his sisters here with us?" And they took offense at him. 4 And Jesus said to them, "A prophet is not without honor, except in his own country, and among his own kin, and in his own house." 5 And he could do no mighty work there, except that he laid his hands upon a few sick people and healed them.
So the Mark author couldn't make up his mind whether Jesus did a mighty deed or not.
In sum:
We have a saying which is false and for which we need an explanation.
And the text clearly implies that Jesus did perform miracles, but that for some reason he was unable to do any miracle act at this place (Nazareth) at this one time.
And, it's impossible that this story, the Rejection at Nazareth, could have been invented later by the Gospel writers in 70-100 AD. They must have taken this story from an early source, because there is no way any of them would have invented a story that Jesus could not perform a miracle at a particular time or place.
So there must have been a rumor of some kind, very early, probably around 30 AD, saying that Jesus was unable to perform any miracle at Nazareth on at least this one occasion. Which clearly implies that he did perform such acts at other times and places.
Furthermore, the Luke account contains an insult to Jesus: "Physician, cure yourself!" The context of this insult is made obscure in the Luke text, which seems to have Jesus giving excuses why he refused to perform any miracle in Nazareth:
Luke 4: and they said, "Is not this Joseph's son?" 23 And he said to them, "Doubtless you will quote to me this proverb, 'Physician, heal yourself; what we have heard you did at Caper'na-um, do here also in your own country.'" 24 And he said, "Truly, I say to you, no prophet is acceptable in his own country. 25 But in truth, I tell you, there were many widows in Israel in the days of Eli'jah, when the heaven was shut up three years and six months, when there came a great famine over all the land; 26 and Eli'jah was sent to none of them but only to Zar'ephath, in the land of Sidon, to a woman who was a widow. 27 And there were many lepers in Israel in the time of the prophet Eli'sha; and none of them was cleansed, but only Na'aman the Syrian." 28 When they heard this, all in the synagogue were filled with wrath. 29 And they rose up and put him out of the city, and led him to the brow of the hill on which their city was built, that they might throw him down headlong.
What's an explanation of all this? Who was this person they tried to throw over a cliff? a person who is being treated like a charlatan, claiming he could do miracles but in this case giving excuses why he will not?
Why did the Gospel writers include an incident where it seems Jesus is not the same as in other places where he did perform these acts, but here says he won't, and is insulted by someone implying that he is sick?
This person does not seem to be the same one described elsewhere who healed the woman who touched his garment as he walked by, and the leper who came and asked to be healed, and the blind, etc. This one "Rejection at Nazareth" story seems to be describing a totally different person, who acted this way one time only, at this one place only. Might it have been a different person?
However you explain it, the account implies that Jesus did perform miracles at other times and places, and it is a very early story which the Gospel writers did not "make up." Rather, they included it because it was in their sources. The Gospel writers included the good and the bad with their accounts of Jesus, even this incident which makes him look bad. Perhaps they tried to "whitewash" it in order to obscure the bad element, but they included it rather than censoring it.
There is no way to twist this story into something to debunk the miracle claims. For that you'd have to explain why it's only at Nazareth and nowhere else where such a thing is reported.