The evidence for the miracles of Jesus is superior to that for other acclaimed miracle legends, myths, prophets, heroes, etc.
I see one source gradually exaggerated and expanded into what we now know as the synoptic gospels.
If it makes you feel good to "see" or pretend the number of sources is fewer than the 4 or 5 (the correct number), then no one can force the facts into you to contradict your visions. But you are fantasizing and inventing your own set of facts to suit your ideological commitment in artificially reducing the number of sources.
You are funny….pretend…LOL Yeah, Dr. Feel Good…
I feel good about pretending to agree with the 2-source hypothesis (Q & Mark) that most theologians ascribe to.
But this hypothesis doesn't say that Matthew and Luke are not separate sources, or that Q and Mark are the only sources. It does not reject the 4 Gospels as 4 separate sources, but only explains the quoted parts from Mark and the hypothetical Q. It makes Matthew and Luke partly dependent on Mark and Q, but not entirely dependent on them, as though these were the only 2 sources for the synoptic Gospels.
Then we have Paul’s letters, from a guy who never met this Jesus;
Most of our recorded ancient history is from writers who never met the historical characters they describe in their accounts.
However, what is known is that Paul’s letters that only hint at who this purported Jesus is . . .
He tells us enough that it has to be the same person described in the gospel accounts. There is enough overlap that it cannot possibly be any other person. Why does Paul speak of the "churches in Judea" and his encounter with Peter and James, who are in the gospel accounts? How can it not be the same Jesus person they knew?
. . . and he states he never met Jesus;
You mean no one can ever write about someone they never met? Once again, you have to throw out virtually ALL of our historical record if you follow that guideline. Why is it that your logic, again and again, requires us to scrap virtually ALL the historical record?
Why do you parse my statements, like each phrase is supposed to exist on its own? Each part, is part of the whole analysis. Only a buffoon would argue in such a way.
So then you agree that Paul is a legitimate source for the historical Jesus, especially the Resurrection, despite never having met him. Plus the 4 Gospel accounts are sources or evidence for the Jesus events, including the miracle acts. So these along with Paul give us 5 separate sources for the Resurrection event. So you're not denying that we have these 4 (5) sources. Only a buffoon would misinterpret you otherwise.
And you even admit that these anonymous authors embellished many parts of the Gospels.
And Josephus and Tacitus and Herodotus and Plutarch etc. also embellished many parts of their accounts -- So therefore, what? most of our history sources are unreliable? There you go again -- shit-canning 90% of our historical record! Ruthless!
And one might even speculate that the gospel accounts contain more "embellishment" than Josephus or whoever. Some writers do it more than others. But ALL are legitimate sources for the events they report. We don't throw them out because of embellishment or failure to stick to the hard facts only.
You must be debating your sock puppet again… Yes, the Gospels are very ordinary documents from history, and you demonstrate part of why that is all they should be considered, and the magic shit should be shit-canned as you suggest.
No, because we have 4 sources for the miracle acts of Jesus (5 sources for the Resurrection), making them more documented than many recognized facts of history, and far more credible than any other miracle claims in antiquity.
I’m saying that whether it is 30 years or 120 years, BS can emerge in days, so it doesn’t matter.
But you'll never give an example of a miracle story in the ancient literature which emerged in a short time, or instant miracle-worker legend. You will look like a buffoon trying to cite a case of this. Dr. Carrier tries to find examples and makes a fool of himself with the ludicrous examples he comes up with.
Ah, but again as always, you try to tie down the BS to only your special sweet smelling shit. When I say BS can emerge quickly, I don’t care if it is about UFO’s, special healing, the loch ness monster, or any other kind of fantasy.
OK, now you're giving modern examples, 20th century, where obviously there are "instant" miracle legends, due to the modern media/publishing, which allows EVERYthing to be publicized. If need be we can kick that around too but, saving that for another time -- since you have only modern examples to offer, you are admitting that "instant" miracle legends did not occur in ancient times, except this one time only. So, with that qualifier, you're admitting that the Jesus miracle legend of the 1st century is the ONLY instant miracle legend, unlike any other, with no parallel. I.e., no others having any sources near the time of the alleged events, or any more than one source, i.e., no credible evidence such as we use for historical events.
Again, I don’t care about your hobby horse…
But you do agree, without caring, that we have these 4 (5) separate sources for the Jesus miracle acts, which is a degree of evidence which is lacking for any other miracle claims in antiquity. In fact there is nothing even close to this one case.
You're saying "OK, take it and shove it!" but you don't deny it -- you admit this is true.
So, for the record, you hate it and condemn it all as BS, but still you acknowledge that we have this evidence, these 4 (5) sources, such as we do not have for other miracle legends. You're admitting this is true -- but reserving the right to dislike it and reject it as a hobby.
Clearly, you do not know what the meaning of the word “clearly” means, . . .
What I said is that if these accounts in the gospels are taken as true about everything except that of the specific miracle act in each case, then it's clear from them that there were non-disciples present.
Instead of squabbling childishly over a word meaning, why don't you explain how it's not "clear" that there were NON-disciples present at these events, if we take the gospel accounts as generally accurate on the non-miracle elements in the story, while setting aside only the specific miracle claim in each case?
I don’t quibble over words, I call you on your BS. Though I do make fun of your abuse of word meanings. You make vacuous claims and then try to move goal posts to pretend are aren’t full of it. Who the fuck even suggested that there weren’t “NON-disciples” within the tales?
So you agree these accounts are saying NON-disciples were present, while in all other miracle claims there were only disciples present. Not only the JS miracle claims, but also the Asclepius miracle events at the temples, where only the worshipper and the priest(s) were present.
Another dissimilarity of the Jesus miracles to others is that in all other cases of miracle healings, the healer performed his act in the name of an ancient healing god.
I.e., Joseph Smith did all his healing acts in the name of Jesus Christ, while the worshippers at the Asclepius temples, and the priests, did their act in the name of the ancient god Asclepius. And virtually all of the current faith healers perform their acts in the name of Christ.
But in all the Jesus healing acts in the Gospels, he never invokes the name of any ancient healing god. This is significant, because it's the authority of the ancient healing god which wins over the worshippers and causes them to believe a miracle is happening (even when it's not), and without this the victims "healed" would not believe this power to heal them existed. So even if the actual healing never happened, we can explain why the worshipper believed it, because of the ancient healing god tradition which is invoked.
But this cannot explain why the Jesus miracle claims were believed.
That is completely different than the notion of who passed on the miracle healing tales (which was your claim relative to clarity). You are quibbling as you can’t back up your claim of clarity.
What's clear is this: If we accept all miracle stories as true about the incidental details other than the actual miracle event per se, setting that aside as doubtful, then
• the Gospel accounts show NON-disciples present, and in many cases some of them do spread the story elsewhere (though probably disciples also spread the story). BUT,
• the JS miracle stories, and most others, have ONLY disciples of the healer present, so that the stories must have originated from them and at first were spread only by them rather than by NON-disciples.
It's debatable how significant this is, but it does add to the credibility if NON-disciples were present and had something to do with spreading the stories. It doesn't PROVE anything, but it is additional evidence which increases the credibility of the Gospel accounts in comparison to other miracle claims of those times.
If you didn’t abuse words, as you make arguments, then you probably won’t feel like people are quibbling when they challenge your bald assertion. Never mind that I made this painfully clear already:
OK you made it clear (whatever it was -- you're 1000% right about it), but still you're not disputing the above point that we have this additional evidence to give still more credibility to the Jesus miracle stories, in comparison to all the other miracle legends of antiquity.
And again, it's not your hobby and you think it's all horseshit. But you're not disputing this point.
This one fits the pattern of at least one non-disciple being present. The earlier crowds may be included, or excluded, as part of this miracle story. The general context shows that probably other non-disciples also were present, but in this case it's not clearly implied.
Within your voluminous babble is really a simple point of debate. The logic of my scoreboard had nothing to do with assuming the miracle accounts as false. Of course, there are many side characters or non-disciples in the healing stories. You belabor such obvious details ad nauseam.
But it does matter, even if you don't care about it. It adds at least some additional credibility, compared to other miracle claims.
There was also most probably earth under their feet, but we don’t state it.
But that's not an important point indicating anything about the credibility, as the presence of NON-disciples increases the credibility, even if by only a small degree. It's reasonable to think this adds significantly to the credibility, because we know how disciples tend to believe blindly in the power of their Guru-hero, and thus imagine a miracle happened when it did not.
My view is that in the large majority of the healing stories, the disciples had to be components of the story that only the disciple could know.
But those components are not the basic miracle event per se which was known to all those present, according to the accounts.
In your desperation to have lots of witnesses to buttress your “believe the Miracle Max part, cuz that is what I cling to while throwing most of the Bible into the trash can”, . . .
I was certainly an asshole to say anything like that.
. . . into the trash can", you assume that these side characters passed along these stories.
It's likely they did, if we accept the incidental details as true, i.e., everything but the actual miracles per se, which we set aside as dubious. And it's reasonable to consider them this way, as a reasonable possibility, though obviously we don't know for sure what happened. It's reasonable to assume some such events occurred, even if the miracle element per se is fiction, so that there was a real event and some of those details in the story are true.
That some non-disciples passed along the stories doesn't mean the disciples didn't also pass them along.
You once said something like ‘these parts where the disciples had to be the ones telling the story, the Gospel writer(s)/composer(s) were just being editors of the larger Gospel document to make it more readable but not the source of the story’. We have nothing outside of the Gospels to suggest that non-disciples were passing healing stories forward to the later decades. While this is clearly a possible explanation, it is hardly a fact, nor is it clearly the most likely explanation.
What this answers is why the miracle healing claims were believed by later writers, editors, redactors, the final Gospel writers.
There's no other case of educated persons believing claims like this and recording them in writing, and having them copied and recopied for transmission to later generations. Why did so many educated persons believe the Jesus miracle healing stories?
This was not the norm. Writers generally did not believe such claims, though there surely were some healing cults or gurus or messiah pretenders doing alleged miracles of one kind or another. But these were generally rejected or scoffed at and not taken seriously by those who could have recorded them but chose not to.
Why did so many of them make an exception in this one case, for this one reported healer of about 30 AD, and even report that he rose from the grave after being executed?
Given these accounts of him, it's a reasonable speculation that in this one case there were
many diverse reports about his miracle acts -- far more than other cases -- so that his case was different, with so many different stories circulating about him, even from those who were not his disciples. And so this case was taken seriously, in contrast to all the others, and was believed even by educated persons, who then recorded it because this was important -- "good news" -- and worthy to be transmitted widely to be learned by everyone.
So the involvement of the NON-disciples adds to the persuasiveness of the evidence, making the whole Jesus miracle "legend" more credible. This increased credibility, further accumulation of evidence, increases the likelihood that the events really did happen, indicating that the spreading "faith" or belief in him was based on evidence and reason and was not "blind" faith.