I don't know where you guys find the time.
I'm retired, so I've got all the time in the world.
That I do understand your position and the compatibilist definition of free will.
I just don't agree with it.
Do you possibly agree, that the compatibilist definition of free will, is in fact compatible with the notion of a world of perfectly reliable cause and effect, in which every event is the reliable result of antecedent events?
I mean, if you look just at
our definition,
without replacing it with your own, do you find our definition incompatible with a deterministic view of the universe, or compatible with it?
Incompatibilists, for the given reasons, do not agree with the compatibilist definition of free will.
And that would explain why the incompatibilist would continue to replace our definition of free will with some form of "freedom from causal necessity", whether neurological necessity, or antecedent causal necessity, or natural law necessity, or some other form of causal necessity.
None of those freedoms are required by compatibilist free will. We only require freedom from coercion and other forms of undue influence, which are
meaningful and relevant constraints upon a person's freedom to choose for themselves what they will do.
From my side of the fence, it appears that it is the compatibilist who fails to consider the problems that are being pointed out.
I think we are very aware that
your definition of free will is definitely contrary to the notion of determinism. Your definition of free will is basically "freedom from determinism". And we would agree that your "free will" is certainly incompatible with determinism.
But our definition is not.
Basically:
Necessitated actions - being determined - are not (by definition) freely chosen, negotiable or alterable.
Let's start there. With our definition of free will, requiring only freedom from coercion and undue influence, and not freedom from causal necessity, when I choose to order the salad instead of the steak for dinner, I am free to make that choice for myself, because I was neither coerced nor unduly influenced.
I was certainly not free of causal necessity, but I certainly was free of coercion and undue influence.
Determined events proceed or unfold deterministically according to antecedent events and the laws or principles of nature.
Of course. All events always proceed or unfold deterministically according to antecedent events and the laws or principles of nature. So, it would be silly to define free will in any fashion that suggested otherwise. So, we don't. But the incompatibilist does!
For us, it will either be the case that it was causally necessary, from any prior point in time, that we would be free of coercion and undue influence, or, that we would be coerced or unduly influenced while making our choice.
Causal necessity holds. And our definition of free will holds.
Consequently, determined/necessitated actions are not freely willed actions.
Only when using your definition of free will. If you define free will as the absence of causal necessity, then obviously your free will contradicts causal necessity.
But with our definition, it will either be causally necessary that we will be free of coercion and undue influence or it will be causally necessary that we will not be free of them.
Causal necessity holds. And our definition of free will holds.
1. We have no control over circumstances that existed in the past, nor do we have any control over the laws of nature.
Correct. And yet we do have control over whether we will order the steak or the salad, and that control is consistent with our past and also consistent with the laws of nature.
Our free will only requires freedom from coercion and undue influence. It does not require freedom from the causal effects of our past and it does not require freedom from the causal effects of our own nature.
We, in the present, are the result of our antecedent events and our own nature. However, it is always us, in the present, that is controlling, through our own choosing whether we will have the steak or whether we will have the salad.
2. If A causes B, we have no control over A, and A is sufficient for B, then we have no control over B.
That's a believable suggestion, but false. And that's how paradoxes are built, by false but believable suggestions.
The truth is that our prior causes are insufficient to order the salad for dinner. Whatever control they had in forming us is now located in us. It will be our brain that decides whether to order the steak or the salad, and our own voice that tells the waiter, "I will have the Chef Salad, please".
Let's correct that formula: If A (antecedent events and the laws of nature) causes B (a person), such that B can exercise control by making choices, then B is sufficient to exercise control by making choices. That is the truth of the matter.
3. All of our actions and thoughts are consequences of past events and the laws of nature.
All events, from the motion of the planets to the thoughts going through our heads right now, are causally necessary from any prior point in time. However, this is not a meaningful or relevant constraint. What we will inevitably do is exactly identical to us just being us, choosing what we choose, and doing what we do. It is basically "what we would have done anyway". And that is not a meaningful constraint.
And since it is a universal constant that cannot be altered, it is seldom relevant to bring it up.
4. As assuming responsibility requires the right kind of regulative control, ultimately, we are not responsible for what we do or think (2, 3).
And the incompatibilist should cringe at having to make such an absurd statement. The bank robber is not responsible for the robbery? Putin is not responsible for murdering citizens and destroying the civilian infrastructure of Ukraine? What the fork?!
No. We hold responsible the most meaningful and relevant causes of an event. A meaningful cause efficiently explains why the event happened. A relevant cause is something we can actually do something about.
''Wanting to do X is fully determined by these prior causes. Now that the desire to do X is being felt, there are no other constraints that keep the person from doing what he wants, namely X. At this point, we should ascribe free will to all animals capable of experiencing desires (e.g., to eat, sleep, or mate). Yet, we don’t; and we tend not to judge non-human animals in moral terms.'' - cold comfort in compatibilism.
You'll need to unpack that rant into statements you're willing to support. I've already pointed out the moral problem of its suggestion that a person acts upon their desires without constraint. And whether specific animals have free will or not is a separate issue. And, despite its author's claim, we actually do judge non-human animals in moral terms.
So, I don't know what it is specifically that you care to address in that mishmash.
1. No one has power over the facts of the past and the laws of nature.
Correct. We have no time machines and no power to create universes that operate under different laws. Fortunately, none of that is necessary in order for our choices to be free of coercion and undue influence.
2. No one has power over the fact that the facts of the past and the laws of nature entail every fact of the future (i.e., determinism is true).
Correct, but only if you include the past and the laws of nature that happen to be within us, that is to say, we also, by our own choices and own actions, happen to be prior causes of future events.
3. Therefore, no one has power over the facts of the future.
That's false, of course. Every one of us, by our own choices and actions in the present, exercise power over the facts of the future. We, too, are prior causes within the causal chain. To deny this invalidates the incompatibilist's definition of antecedent causes, and disintegrates their causal chains. So, don't do that.