The menu has multiple items, but as the choice we make is determined, it is the only option that is realizable.
To realize something means to make it real. If you have the
ability to make it real, then it is
realizable,
even if you never choose to make it real. Your dream house is
realizable if you have
the means to realize it, even if you never decide to actually realize it.
All of the items on the restaurant menu are realizable, even though you will only make one of them real.
''Determinism means that events will proceed naturally (as if "fixed as a matter of natural law") and reliably ("without deviation").'' - Marvin Edwards
''Without deviation'' means no possible alternate action.
You're not taking determinism as seriously as I am. "Without deviation" means that every possible alternate action that appeared on the menu for my consideration was causally necessary from any prior point in eternity. It means that every thought I had about the steak was equally necessary, and every thought I had about the salad was also necessary, and that I would necessarily find that the salad would meet my needs better than the steak, such that I would necessarily tell the waiter, "I will have the salad, please."
But here's the kicker, it would be causally necessary from any prior point in eternity that I would be making this choice while
free of coercion and undue influence, in other words,
of my own freely chosen will.
Not "freely" as in "free from causal necessity" (because that's foolishness), but only "freely" as in "free from coercion and undue influence".
Choosing the salad was necessitated, therefore inevitable, you could not have not chosen the salad.
I could choose any item on the menu, but I would only choose the salad. Determinism cannot speak to what I could have done, but only to what I will and what I would have done.
For example, determinism can assert that I
would face an issue that required me to make a decision, that I
would consider the options on the menu, that I
would choose the salad, and that during these inevitable choosing events I
would be free of coercion and undue influence.
You can choose the salad when it is determined that you choose the salad.
I
can choose the salad whenever I want. Determinism may assert precisely when I
will choose it, but not when I can choose it.
Otherwise, if something else is determined, that is what you do.
Of course, how could it be otherwise? If it is determined that I will do it, then I will certainly do it, and I will even want to do it (Schopenhauer and Kane), even though I could have done other things instead, like ordering the steak.
You not only can choose the salad if determined, but must necessarily choose the salad because it is determined that you choose the salad.
I can choose the salad whether it is determined or not. But if it is determined that I will choose the salad, then I certainly will choose it, regardless what I could have chosen instead.
As you said - ''(as if "fixed as a matter of natural law") and reliably ("without deviation").'' - Marvin Edwards.
Correct! All events are always causally necessary, including the mental events that we call "possibilities", things that "can" happen even if they don't happen.
As you can see, universal causal necessity/inevitability doesn't actually change anything. There are the possibilities, and they will always be there whenever we need them to help us figure things out.
If you accept regulative control as a necessary part of free will, it seems impossible either way:
1. Free will requires that given an act A, the agent could have acted otherwise
2. Indeterminate actions happens randomly and without intent or control
3. Therefore indeterminism and free will are incompatible
4. Determinate actions are fixed and unchangeable
5. Therefore determinism is incompatible with free will
I've addressed 1, 4, and 5 repeatedly in these discussions.
1. Whenever choosing occurs, it will always be the case that there will be one action that I could have done, but did not do.
4. The fact that there will be at least one action that I could have done, but didn't, is fixed and unchangeable by determinism!
5. Therefore determinism is compatible with free will.
Not really, the argument begins with ''regulative control as a necessary part of free will'' - which of course is correct - therefore the rest follows. The right kind of control is a necessary requirement for freedom.
I've addressed regulatory control in detail as well. I do not need to micromanage my neural activity, because I happen to
BE that neural activity ordering the salad for dinner! The flaw in your logic and Taylor's is a false dualism, an attempt to separate me from my own brain. And that's pretty forked up, don't you think?
Dualism is not being invoked.
Whenever you suggest that I must exist separately from my brain you are invoking dualism. For example, if you say that I must be the cause of my brain before I can be the true cause of anything else, or that I must control what my brain does before I can control anything else, you are invoking dualism.
Conscious awareness does play a role, just not the right kind of role to qualify as free will. That is the point. I'm not suggesting that consciousness plays no role.
...
A brain processes information unconsciously, according to its properties, nature and makeup prior to conscious representation of that information.
It seems you are still uncertain of the role of awareness in the brain. I'm not a neuroscientist, but my impression is that awareness, even after the fact, serves a necessary purpose. And unconscious activity brings in conscious awareness when necessary to input or output information during all forms of communication.
The key thing here is that it doesn't really matter whether a decision is made unconsciously and then later becomes conscious. I know that I am consciously aware of the restaurant menu. I know that I am consciously aware of placing the salad order. And I know that I am responsible for paying the bill for my dinner.
I'll just add this snippet;
''The
compatibilist provides us with a philosophically sophisticated interpretation of could have done otherwise, but what reason do we have for believing that people actually employ such a notion? It is simply not enough to present a possible interpretation of what might be going on.
I contend that the compatibilist has to make a plausible case that people actually view matters in this way. There is, however, little empirical support for this conclusion.
Quite to the contrary, Nichols (2006b) has recently conducted a pilot study that suggests just the opposite. In the study, 75 undergraduates were given the following vignette:
On 4/13/2005, Bill filled out his tax form. At precisely 10:30 AM, he decided to lie about his income.
But of course, he didn't have to make this decision. Bill could have decided to be honest.
The subjects were then asked to judge whether a sentence sounded right or wrong (on a scale of 3 to −3).
One group got the following sentence, modeled on conditional analyses: Bill could have decided to be honest at 10:30, 4/13/2005, but only if some things had been different before the moment of his decision.
The other group got the following sentence, modeled on unconditional analyses: Bill could have decided to be honest at 10:30, 4/13/2005, even if nothing had been different before the moment of his decision.
The results were telling. Subjects were more likely to judge that the unconditional sentence sounded right. They gave higher ratings for the 68 Kriterion Journal of Philosophy (2012) 26: 5689 sentence modeled on unconditional analyses than for the one modeled on conditional analyses.''
Cool. Here's the thing. The unconditional analysis happens to be correct. Bill could have decided to be honest at 10:30, 4/13/2005, even if nothing had been different before the moment of his decision. This requires no philosophical analysis, as it is simply a matter of how the language logically works when communicating practical information about reality.