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Define God Thread

Speakpigeon,

I am sorry for not being able to respond here sooner. Mostly work-related stuff occupying my time. It may be a couple more days before I will be able to write up a response, but would like to continue this chat here.

Thanks,

Brian
 
Take all the time you need. My mind is not one hundred percent operational right now.
EB
 
That is incorrect though. You can still have EVIDENCE that the idea is *NOT* actually true, even if you do not have PROOF that it is not (such as if it contradicted itself). We can have evidence AGAINST THE IDEA that clouds in the sky are actually magical witches which pour water onto the ground below them (aka “rain”). We can make observations about what clouds are, about how they form, how they dissipate, under what other circumstances they do drop raindrops below them and in what circumstances they do not do that, etc. By making those observations about what raindrops are and what clouds are, it is not only rational and reasonable to conclude that they are non-magical phenomena, it is also irrational and unreasonable to conclude that they are. So no, you do not need to know with certainty some statement to be false, for it to be irrational to hold the belief. You can still hold strong evidence that the statement is false, without holding absolute proof that it is.

I think you're missing the point since your example is significantly different from the one where animals speak Japanese. To makes the two examples sufficiently similar we can indeed assume we have a model, the usual model, to explain why rain is falling. Specifically, the model will say that if such and such conditions obtain, rain just falls. Then believing that animals speak Japanese when not being listened to would be similar to somebody believing that in those cases where rain is falling but they don't have direct evidence that the conditions associated with the model obtain, then they will assume that rain falls because of a witch.

I see a lot of words there, but confess to not knowing what you are trying to say. Much of the confusion does rest on your ideas about your terms of “direct evidence” and the “circumstantial evidence” that you used earlier. All evidence is “circumstantial evidence” since its existence is dependent on what circumstances obtain at the time the data is gathered. It really does not make any meaningful difference to say some evidence is “circumstantial evidence” and others is not, since it is all circumstantial by its very nature. The particular circumstances will vary, but there will always be circumstances. You have used the phrase “direct evidence” in contrast to “circumstantial evidence” but that does not have any useful meaning in the same way. All evidence will be “direct” in some way, to some extent. It is all based on observations that we make. Sometimes we will have FIRST HAND data to rely on, where others will have EXTERNAL data. A person can have the sensation of feeling intense heat on their body, whereas others will not have that sensation, but can still reasonably infer that the original person did have that sensation through their reflexive body movements, verbal reactions, attempts to reduce that feeling through various body movements, etc. It is all circumstantial though, since it all relies on the circumstances that are present. When you say “direct evidence” it would seem that you mean they are experiencing the sensation of intense heat, where other people do not feel that sensation but infer it based on their external observations.

Yes, in your example, deciding to put out the garbage tin is really a scientific process on a reduced scale.
It is moreso a *rational* process, and scientists and non-scientists alike both try to use the method of rationality for various purposes. Scientists do not use rationality exclusively. Rather, we all use it when trying to make observations of the world around us to collect data and then make logical deductions from that data. The scientific method is just a more formal and more reliable and more accurate means of doing so than are other alternatives like praying to gods, twiddling our thumbs, flipping a coin, etc.

Your garbage example shows you think that it is irrational to believe something for which you don't have direct evidence, namely that one put out the bin because of past observations justifying a model of garbage collection and of the present observation that the relevant conditions obtain today, which is the direct evidence you really think is necessary. Plus, this process is validated by being universally accepted as adequate.
I do not use your term of “direct evidence” so that is not an accurate statement of my viewpoint. All evidence by nature is “direct.” We make observations and collect data, make logical deductions of that data, and if the logic is sound then that constitutes evidence for a claim.

So if we make an argument:

Premise 1: Robert is a person who eats 2 carrots a day, on the typical day.
Premise 2: People who typically eat 2 carrots a day are likely to live longer than other people, all else being equal.
Conclusion: Therefore, Robert is more likely to live longer than other people, all else being equal.

The premises of that argument can have more or less “direct” or “circumstantial” data for them, to support or deny them. The argument on the whole though is not more “direct” or “circumstantial” though. It is just the truthfulness of the premises that can have that characteristic. The logic used to draw a conclusion from certain premises will be either “valid” or “invalid.” If all the premises are believed to be true and the logic used to draw a conclusion from those premises is believed to be valid logic, then we say that the argument on the whole will be “sound.” If any of the premises are believed to be false, or the logic used to draw a conclusion from those premises is believed to be invalid logic, then we say the argument on the whole is “unsound.”

So the above argument would be considered “sound” while the below argument would be considered “unsound:”

Premise 1: Robert is a person who eats 2 carrots a day, on the typical day.
Premise 2: People who typically eat 2 carrots a day are likely to live longer than other people, all else being equal.
Conclusion: Therefore, Robert is more likely to be a serial killer than other people, all else being equal.

So both premises may be considered true by the best data and observations we have available to us, but only the first argument above makes a logically deductive conclusion based on that data. The second argument may have true premises, but the logic used in making the conclusion from those premises (Robert being more likely to be a serial killer) does not follow from the premises. It uses invalid logic, and the argument is “unsound.” Even if it is true that Robert is more likely to be a serial killer than other people are, it is still not a logical deduction from the premises we have observed to be true.

In the case of rain falling, you would predict that rain is going to fall if you had direct evidence that the conditions of your model obtain now, which can only be ascertained by measurement of the relevant parameters in the atmosphere, i.e. direct evidence.

That is also how doctors conclude that a patient of theirs is likely or unlikely to be in pain. They make measurements, make observations, collect data, and so that would also be “direct evidence” to use your phrase there. It is not a firsthand account of feeling the sensation of pain, but still “direct evidence” that a person is likely or unlikely to be in pain, as much as people making measurements of the atmosphere is “direct evidence” that rain is likely or unlikely to fall.

Yet, as I see it, I'm not and I'm satisfied that I have looked at the issue in more details and depth than most people, so I think this makes my position perfectly rational.
The more significant point is comparing your view to the people who actually have done research into the matter, have done formal testing and data gathering, who do engage in discussions with peers of theirs who have done similar research, etc. If they largely believe that your position is erroneous, we are not only “free to assume” and “free to believe" that they are more likely to be right on this issue than you would be, but it is also RATIONAL AND REASONABLE to conclude that they are more likely to be right.

Oh, I accept that the position of scientists is rational but that doesn't make mine irrational. We start with different considerations.

When their “considerations” have been put through more rigorous, defined, repeated testing, peer review, and evaluation to verify their truth than what you did, then your “considerations” are not just different from each other, but their considerations are more likely to be actually true than your considerations are, especially when those considerations disagree with each other. As a human being, you would have to accept that you are subject to having all sorts of cognitive biases that can influence you and what you believe to be true, such as:

http://mentalfloss.com/article/68705/20-cognitive-biases-affect-your-decisions

Everybody tries to make accurate observations and collect reliable data, and then everybody tries to make logical deductions of those observations and data, to draw a true conclusion from it. With that first step, some methods used of data collection are more likely to be accurate than others are. The methods that scientists use of peer review, data collecting that attempts to reduce or exclude biases, etc. are more likely to succeed in making true observations about the world around us than are some of the alternatives that I have mentioned before like coin-flipping, praying to supernatural gods, etc.

We all believe we are making true observations and accurate data collection, we all believe we are using valid logic to draw conclusions from that data, and then we all believe we are making reliable conclusions and so we all believe we have “direct evidence” for our beliefs and viewpoints. Some methods actually are better than others though at accounting for any errors in our thinking. Some are less reliable. Science is just a much more formal and thorough method for doing so, and so we should trust more in the conclusions drawn by people practicing science (scientists) than the conclusions drawn by non-scientists, when those conclusions are in conflict with each other.

They limit theirs to objective cognitive capabilities such as memorisation, linguistic performance, perception tasks, etc. and choose to dismiss qualia and subjective experience as non-existent because they don't know how to get objective evidence of them.

Can you cite any kind of sources for those extraordinary claims?

What scientists are dismissing subjective experience as non-existent? They appear to clearly exist in some pieces of matter and not others. Rocks and trees and planets and various other collections of matter appear to not have qualia and subjective experiences. Animals and humans and other conscious beings, however, appear to have subjective experiences and qualia. What scientists are dismissing qualia and subjective experiences as non-existent? When has that ever been declared, by anyone? Please make specific citations.



Their position is only rational though because their objective is to do their job and be socially valued as scientists and since they don't know how to explain qualia and subjective experience in scientific terms the rational thing is to deny that they exit at all. They couldn't do that if qualia and subjective experience were straightforward concepts. I think it's easy to misunderstand what those mean. This is evidenced by the fact that it took humanity quite a long time to start articulating these ideas in a coherent way, broadly at the start of the twentieth century. And then scientists have theorised a view that the existence of whatever cannot register on any known measuring device can be flatly denied. I take it as a rational attitude but an intellectually dishonest position, unless they just happen to have no subjective experience or qualia personally, which would be very, very surprising but maybe not totally impossible.

Again, please make specific citations of any human being at all, and especially any scientist, denying the existence of “subjective experience.”

That was how I compare my views with that of scientists. The bottom line is that I understand what I mean by 'qualia' and 'subjective experience' and I don't see how the scientific model of how the brain works could ever explain anything in that respect.
Not understanding yourself how something in nature could be explained is not enough reason to conclude that it has no natural explanation though. Science has succeeded so well throughout its history in part by finding natural explanations for phenomena that we previously did not have an explanation for. We just employ other methods, tools, ideas, and collect more data to do so. It takes time, patience, willingness to doubt our own current beliefs and change them if warranted, inventiveness and a desire to come up with new ideas, etc. Science has been remarkably successful in increasing our knowledge of the world around us when people have such approaches, much more than using supernatural beings to “explain” the natural world around us.

Brian
 
I see a lot of words there, but confess to not knowing what you are trying to say. Much of the confusion does rest on your ideas about your terms of “direct evidence” and the “circumstantial evidence” that you used earlier. All evidence is “circumstantial evidence” since its existence is dependent on what circumstances obtain at the time the data is gathered. It really does not make any meaningful difference to say some evidence is “circumstantial evidence” and others is not, since it is all circumstantial by its very nature. The particular circumstances will vary, but there will always be circumstances. You have used the phrase “direct evidence” in contrast to “circumstantial evidence” but that does not have any useful meaning in the same way. All evidence will be “direct” in some way, to some extent. It is all based on observations that we make. Sometimes we will have FIRST HAND data to rely on, where others will have EXTERNAL data. A person can have the sensation of feeling intense heat on their body, whereas others will not have that sensation, but can still reasonably infer that the original person did have that sensation through their reflexive body movements, verbal reactions, attempts to reduce that feeling through various body movements, etc. It is all circumstantial though, since it all relies on the circumstances that are present. When you say “direct evidence” it would seem that you mean they are experiencing the sensation of intense heat, where other people do not feel that sensation but infer it based on their external observations.

Circumstantial evidence
http://www.thefreedictionary.com/circumstantial+evidence
noun
indirect evidence that tends to establish a conclusion by inference.
Compare direct evidence
Collins English Dictionary – Complete and Unabridged, 12th Edition 2014 © HarperCollins Publishers 1991, 1994, 1998, 2000, 2003, 2006, 2007, 2009, 2011, 2014

Direct evidence
http://www.thefreedictionary.com/direct+evidence
noun
(Law) law evidence, usually the testimony of a witness, directly relating to the fact in dispute. Compare circumstantial evidence
Collins English Dictionary – Complete and Unabridged, 12th Edition 2014 © HarperCollins Publishers 1991, 1994, 1998, 2000, 2003, 2006, 2007, 2009, 2011, 2014

So, there's a clear and well known distinction between direct and circumstantial evidence.

Consequently, you're also plain wrong in your claim that "all evidence is circumstantial evidence”.

And the notion of "circumstantial evidence” has nothing to do with "what circumstances obtain at the time the data is gathered".

Dictionaries are there to help and using them saves time by cutting the crap.

If you prefer to not understand what people say, it suggests you're not really interested in having a proper discussion to being with.

Your choice.
EB
 
In the case of rain falling, you would predict that rain is going to fall if you had direct evidence that the conditions of your model obtain now, which can only be ascertained by measurement of the relevant parameters in the atmosphere, i.e. direct evidence.

That is also how doctors conclude that a patient of theirs is likely or unlikely to be in pain. They make measurements, make observations, collect data, and so that would also be “direct evidence” to use your phrase there. It is not a firsthand account of feeling the sensation of pain, but still “direct evidence” that a person is likely or unlikely to be in pain, as much as people making measurements of the atmosphere is “direct evidence” that rain is likely or unlikely to fall.

The patient reports pain. It's therefore direct evidence. Like it or not.

Write to complain to the dictionary's editor if you don't like it.

Then the doctor infers from the patient's report that the patient has a broken finger. This inference is the "circumstantial evidence" on which the doctor can ground his prescription to treat the patient.

If the doctor saw the patient had red spots on his buttocks, his conclusion that the patient had red spots on his buttocks would be direct evidence. If now the doctor infers from the red spots that is patient has an allergic reactions to some food for example, and prescribes some skin lotion, then his acceptation that his patient has an allergic reaction would be the circumstantial evidence on which to decide the treatment and the particular lotion to use.
EB
 
Their position is only rational though because their objective is to do their job and be socially valued as scientists and since they don't know how to explain qualia and subjective experience in scientific terms the rational thing is to deny that they exit at all. They couldn't do that if qualia and subjective experience were straightforward concepts. I think it's easy to misunderstand what those mean. This is evidenced by the fact that it took humanity quite a long time to start articulating these ideas in a coherent way, broadly at the start of the twentieth century. And then scientists have theorised a view that the existence of whatever cannot register on any known measuring device can be flatly denied. I take it as a rational attitude but an intellectually dishonest position, unless they just happen to have no subjective experience or qualia personally, which would be very, very surprising but maybe not totally impossible.

That was how I compare my views with that of scientists. The bottom line is that I understand what I mean by 'qualia' and 'subjective experience' and I don't see how the scientific model of how the brain works could ever explain anything in that respect.
Not understanding yourself how something in nature could be explained is not enough reason to conclude that it has no natural explanation though. Science has succeeded so well throughout its history in part by finding natural explanations for phenomena that we previously did not have an explanation for. We just employ other methods, tools, ideas, and collect more data to do so. It takes time, patience, willingness to doubt our own current beliefs and change them if warranted, inventiveness and a desire to come up with new ideas, etc. Science has been remarkably successful in increasing our knowledge of the world around us when people have such approaches, much more than using supernatural beings to “explain” the natural world around us.

I didn't say or suggest that nothing in nature could explain qualia and subjective consciousness. You should read more carefully what people say.

I just don't see how the scientific model of how the brain works could ever explain 'qualia' and 'subjective experience'.

See the difference? I was effectively just stating a fact.

And if you think you know how to make good science to make progress in explaining 'qualia' and 'subjective experience' from nature, please let's hear it.
EB
 
That is also how doctors conclude that a patient of theirs is likely or unlikely to be in pain. They make measurements, make observations, collect data, and so that would also be “direct evidence” to use your phrase there. It is not a firsthand account of feeling the sensation of pain, but still “direct evidence” that a person is likely or unlikely to be in pain, as much as people making measurements of the atmosphere is “direct evidence” that rain is likely or unlikely to fall.

The patient reports pain. It's therefore direct evidence. Like it or not.

Write to complain to the dictionary's editor if you don't like it.

Then the doctor infers from the patient's report that the patient has a broken finger. This inference is the "circumstantial evidence" on which the doctor can ground his prescription to treat the patient.

If the doctor saw the patient had red spots on his buttocks, his conclusion that the patient had red spots on his buttocks would be direct evidence. If now the doctor infers from the red spots that is patient has an allergic reactions to some food for example, and prescribes some skin lotion, then his acceptation that his patient has an allergic reaction would be the circumstantial evidence on which to decide the treatment and the particular lotion to use.
EB

The patient could be lying or the doctor could mishear them. The report could be for the wrong patient, etc.
 
"Define God Thread"

A "God Thread" is a line of reasoning that suffers from logical fallacies, inaccuracies, or other invalidating conditions, used to support a preferred belief that otherwise has no rational support. The one holding the "God thread" is "hanging on by a thread", so to speak, to their preferred belief.
 
The bottom line is that I understand what I mean by 'qualia' and 'subjective experience' and I don't see how the scientific model of how the brain works could ever explain anything in that respect.
Do you think that that which organizes (or generates) qualia, thought, experience, and rationality will be able to come up with an explanation of how it does so?

Do you think that which organizes or generates qualia, etc. does not have the ability to generate an explanation of how it organizes or creates explanations?

I cannot deny the direct evidence of my private experience and I can assume that animals speak Japanese, i.e. that maybe scientists don't have that experience, however unlikely it seems to be.
I'm pretty sure that song "I think I'm turning Japanese" was written from the perspective of furries.
 
God is the Field, and the Knower of the Field.

Sorry, K, my friend! That's all I got.

And by the way, EB, I still can't recollect whom that mug belongs to in your avatar, and it's driving me bonkers. It's not Bunyan, 'cos you wouldn't have Bunyan as an avatar. I would have bet my left breast that it was Pascal.

Edit! Lightbulb! Oh for Pete's sake it's Descartes! I KNEW I knew that mug.
 
And by the way, EB, I still can't recollect whom that mug belongs to in your avatar, and it's driving me bonkers. It's not Bunyan, 'cos you wouldn't have Bunyan as an avatar.

No, I wouldn't have, neither Paul nor John because I didn't even know of any of them.

I would have bet my left breast that it was Pascal.

Edit! Lightbulb! Oh for Pete's sake it's Descartes! I KNEW I knew that mug.

Good! I wouldn't want you to spend the rest of your life confusing Descartes for Pascal.

We can move on now.
EB
 
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No, I wouldn't have, neither Paul nor John because I didn't even know of any of them.

I would have bet my left breast that it was Pascal.

Edit! Lightbulb! Oh for Pete's sake it's Descartes! I KNEW I knew that mug.

Good! I wouldn't want you to spend the rest of your life confusing Descartes for Pascal.

We can move on now.
EB

Yes! And it may amuse you to know that I've been reading bits of Gargantua and Pantagruel again, with two translations.

But, I must ask, as that great American comic, poet and philosopher, Steve Martin, once asked:

"What is it with those French people? It's like they have a different word for everything!

- Guy [see what I mean?]
 
But, I must ask, as that great American comic, poet and philosopher, Steve Martin, once asked:

"What is it with those French people? It's like they have a different word for everything!

I can only assume it's a combination of factors. First, a long and distinguished history, perhaps starting with the Roman invasion around 50BC. Second, a relative prosperity that lasted two millennia, with, crucially, a prosperous and learned gentry. And then, perhaps, a country small enough to achieve political unity quickly and yet big enough to benefit throughout its history from a diversity of cultural influences coming from its many provinces. And, also, being at the heart of Europe, itself with its own distinguished cultural and linguistic production, and with a steady trickle of European luminaries choosing to settle in Paris to fulfil their potential, while at the same time enriching France with their novel ideas.

That being said, there's equivalent richness in English and Chinese, although I believe somewhat different in nature. The prosperity of the English language is much more recent (broadly from Shakespeare and Elisabeth I), while that of the Chinese is much older, at least from 1700BC with the Shang Dynasty!

But I'm going pedant here, sorry.
EB





.
 
It's used in magic carpets. Am I supposed to conduct a poll like you did in the other definition thread?
 
It's used in magic carpets. Am I supposed to conduct a poll like you did in the other definition thread?

I could use a magic carpet ride, K, since I will soon be embarking on "Justifying the ways of God to man..." [ a thousand pounds of saved, shaved sideburns for the person who can identify where that line comes from.]in another thread. :help:
 
Just heard Dan Harmon on Harmontown make an interesting new definition of God. I'm paraphrasing

"We're always striving towards perfection. That's why we go to space and invent new stuff and always want the new coolest stuff. God is an embodiement of the idea of perfection".

But perhaps he wasn't the first to say it? Thomas Aquinas rings a bell. But the difference is that Dan Harmon said it like an atheist would.
 
Just heard Dan Harmon on Harmontown make an interesting new definition of God. I'm paraphrasing

"We're always striving towards perfection. That's why we go to space and invent new stuff and always want the new coolest stuff. God is an embodiement of the idea of perfection".

But perhaps he wasn't the first to say it? Thomas Aquinas rings a bell. But the difference is that Dan Harmon said it like an atheist would.

Anselm of Bec. If there are things that are good, there are things better than good, and the most good of all is God, the very epitome of good. Aquinas took this and made it one of his 5 proofs, argument by degrees. Of course one can always adapt this to other of God's supposed attributes. Perfect being theology.
 
Just heard Dan Harmon on Harmontown make an interesting new definition of God. I'm paraphrasing

"We're always striving towards perfection. That's why we go to space and invent new stuff and always want the new coolest stuff. God is an embodiement of the idea of perfection".

But perhaps he wasn't the first to say it? Thomas Aquinas rings a bell. But the difference is that Dan Harmon said it like an atheist would.

Anselm of Bec. If there are things that are good, there are things better than good, and the most good of all is God, the very epitome of good. Aquinas took this and made it one of his 5 proofs, argument by degrees. Of course one can always adapt this to other of God's supposed attributes. Perfect being theology.

If God is the personification of perfection, and (as everyone knows) nobody's perfect, then we can conclude that God does not exist.
 
Just heard Dan Harmon on Harmontown make an interesting new definition of God. I'm paraphrasing

"We're always striving towards perfection. That's why we go to space and invent new stuff and always want the new coolest stuff. God is an embodiement of the idea of perfection".

But perhaps he wasn't the first to say it? Thomas Aquinas rings a bell. But the difference is that Dan Harmon said it like an atheist would.

Anselm of Bec. If there are things that are good, there are things better than good, and the most good of all is God, the very epitome of good. Aquinas took this and made it one of his 5 proofs, argument by degrees. Of course one can always adapt this to other of God's supposed attributes. Perfect being theology.

If God is the personification of perfection, and (as everyone knows) nobody's perfect, then we can conclude that God does not exist.

What would be understood as "perfection"?

What is understood as "personification"?
 
I can't define God due to the lack of knowing his origin.

To give a definition of what is unknown is a kind or worthless to me.

However, analyzing the god of the bible, I find that this god formed man from dust of the ground, something that scientifically makes sense, unless some scientist thinks we come from nothing.

The interesting part is watching this biblical god using anesthesia on the first man, after the man is asleep, this god opens his side, takes a rib, closes the cut, and with the rib this god manages to perform the cloning of this man but with the female gender.

So, after reading this biblical narration I can conclude that if this biblical god didn't created heavens and earth, surely this god is 6,000 years ahead in technology than us.

I won't mess with a being like that...
 
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