by the imposition of an entirely artificial state on their land ever since it happened.
Why is it "their" land? Because the robbers they succeeded to it from were the 37th nation that stole it rather than the 38th?
Because indigenous people have a Right to call the place where they and their ancestors have lived for thousands of years "their" homeland.
All people have a right to call any place they please "their" homeland. It's called "freedom of speech". I asked why it
is their land, not whether they have a right to
call it that.
If you mean it is their land by right because it's the place where they and their ancestors have lived for thousands of years, then that sounds like you're answering "Yes." to my question -- it's because the robbers they're successors to were the 37th nation that stole it rather than the 38th. If that sounds to you like a knock-down moral endorsement of the justice of their claim, feel free to explain your peculiar theory of justice.
[And, incidentally, what makes the Arabs "indigenous"? Their ancestors haven't lived there for thousands of years. Their ancestors came from Arabia 1400 years ago and seized it from the Byzantines, i.e., the Romans, whose ancestors seized it from the Jews, whose ancestors seized it from the Canaanites, whose ancestors seized it from the [many seizures skipped], whose ancestors seized it from the descendants of the first H. sapiens sapiens to live there, who seized it from the Neanderthals. "Indigenous" is a word that means whoever the speaker wants it to mean.]
At least they do in modern societies. Some folks that still hold to the 'might makes right' way of thinking believe if you can take land from people unable to fight you off, you get to keep it
Isn't that exactly your justification for claiming it's the Arabs' land? That they took it from Byzantines unable to fight them off so they get to keep it?
Or do you mean it wasn't they who took it from the Byzantines -- that was their ancestors in 637 AD? The 1948 Palestinians got it honestly, from their parents? Well, the Israelis didn't take Israel from people unable to fight them off either. That was their great-grandparents in 1948. The current crop of Israelis got it honestly, from their parents. Now, feel free to explain why the magical dividing line between irrelevant ancient history and "historically justified" land claims is conveniently whenever you need it to be to "justify" whichever side of whoever's conflict you take sides in. All rights to land are squatters' rights except maybe the bit the Dutch reclaimed from the sea.
The closest Israelis and Palestinians came to peace was when the Oslo Accords were first being implemented.
The Accords failed because Zionists <snip>
And Zionists have a mirror-image narrative about how the Accords failed because Palestinians.
Israeli Zionists wanted to keep right on colonizing all of the West Bank and Gaza, and were willing to kill their fellow Israelis to achieve that end.
And Palestinian irredentists want to keep right on colonizing all of Israel and are willing to kill their fellow Palestinians to achieve that end. The question is not whose side is ruled by villains; the question is what causes the sides' respective villains to be in charge.
"Palestinians are left with terrorism or defeat as their only options" is an artifact of Gandhi-tactics not being part of their cultural toolkit. Culture is destiny.
Question: Where can Israel find the Palestinian Gandhi? Answer: Exactly where they put him, in administrative detention.
The Palestinians have plenty of Gandhis. The Israelis lock them up, the same way the British locked up Gandhi himself.
And being locked up didn't stop Gandhi from kicking the British out. Of course the Palestinians have Gandhis; finding a Gandhi isn't the problem. The problem is he won't get the street traction Gandhi got, even when he was in jail.