I don't appreciate the implied accusation of dishonesty. I can assure you my comments are completely sincere and I assume the same of you.
Ok, so it's a difficulty with communication.
The problem is I genuinely don't know if you subscribe to a theory of 'meaning is usage' for the meaning of words. You say "of course" in one comment then go on to say that you "question the validity of some common applications" a little later in the same post. So I honestly don't know if you subscribe to 'meaning is usage' wholeheartedly or only in certain specific situations.
Of course I do. Meaning is related to usage. That is not in question, never was and never will be.
There are several aspects to this issue. One, is the question of whether 'meaning' through 'common usage' is in fact an accurate representation of the object, event, idea, etc.
The 'will of god' is an example I gave of 'meaning' developed through common usage in reference to 'the will of god' in relation to certain events in the World....references and meanings that are related to entirely unproven principles - the existence of the will of god, and that events in the world are effected by and conform to the 'will of god'
The meaning, developed through common usage, having no relationship to an actual entity, god, or the reality of the will of god.
Again, meaning developed through common usage cannot prove the reality of the objects they refer to, god, gods will, free will, etc.
If there is such a thing as 'free will' it is a question that can only be understood by an understanding of the nature of the brain (agency) and how the brain generates the things we associate with 'will' - and not merely through 'common usage and meaning' of a word or term.
Could you please help me here?
As I've been trying to point out, usage and common meaning alone does not mean that the things that are being referred to with words and terms are actual entities, objects or events. The references may be mistaken or unproven 'god created man in his image' 'god's will' etc, there may be no 'god' and no 'will of god'
This is important. It goes to the core of our inability to communicate.
It seems you misunderstand the theory of word meaning derived from common usage. It's a theory about the meaning of words. It says nothing about the truth or falsity of any claims we make.
No I don't. and of course I agree with the latter, but you appear to go further. I get the impression that you imply that common usage justifies the reality of the object of reference.
For instance, that free will is an actual attribute of human consciousness because will may be free of coercion and common usage call this 'free will' - therefore we can be said to have free will.
If this is not your position, what are you disputing? It can't be common usage and meaning, which I don't deny, but do question the validity of its references.
So, for instance, if you want want to understand what a community of users mean by the word 'god' you study how the word is used within that community. Having done so, you would arrive at a working definition of what the word means within that community. What the theory would not tell you is whether the concept of god in that community refers to something that has any real existence.
That is precisely what I have been saying and arguing in relation to the issue of free will!!!!!!!
How did you get the idea that I was denying common usage and meaning alone? I've never said, or suggested it, implied it or even hinted at it.
It was always about references, hence I pointed out that 'words are symbols used for the purpose of communication' and not 'the objects themselves' and so on, which says nothing about the nature and attribute of the objects.
Different wording, but essentially the same thing as you said in your last statement.