James Madison said:
It is possible, back then and at that time, the understanding of “love your neighbor as yourself” was not inconsistent with slavery. Which is to say possibly the authors and many at the time were aware of slavery and “love your neighbor as yourself” but didn’t understand the meaning of “love your neighbor as yourself” to present any conflict.
Are you arguing that they were correct not do so? Yes, I know there have been slavers within the Christian fold for the entire tenure of the faith's existence, and that they all thought they were justified in their actions. I'm not claiming that "the authors" whoever you mean by that, all agreed with each other and all agreed with me. But if they don't agree with me, I think they are wrong. And I think you do, too, unless you're about to make a plea like DBT's to try and explain to me why "nice" slave owners are loving.
I know that plenty of people living today think brutal exploitation of
paid workers is never a sin, for the same reasons you discuss. Even if the conditions of said employees' lives are materially worse than that of slaves, they've been raised in a capitalist society that sees labor as an inherent good and therefore themselves as inviolable despite their many cruelties. But being raised within a certain culture in no way makes someone correct in abusing their neighbor, simply because they believe they are. Nearly everyone believes that they are good, and justified in their decisions. That isn't what makes a person good.
At least, not according to Christian philosophy.
Okay, but issue is whether a specific feature, slavery, is sinful and/or immoral according to the Bible. My point is the Bible does not explicitly or tacitly render slavery as immoral or sinful. Your argument the Bible does say slavery is immoral or sinful is difficult to accept as likely for reasons I noted previously but will reiterate again below.
Are you arguing that they were correct not do so?
No. My point is the Bible doesn’t say slavery is immoral or sinful, and your argument the Bible does is difficult given the facts and arguments based on those facts.
Yes, I know there have been slavers within the Christian fold for the entire tenure of the faith's existence
I’m not referring to only Christians. The law went to the Jews. “Love thy neighbor as thyself” appeared in Leviticus, but likely preceded as an oral rule among the Jews and nation of Israel long before it made it to print. The same law included “love thy neighbor as thyself” but the law was not forbidding slavery, as the law acknowledged slavery’s existence and regulated it. They practiced slavery at the time. They didn’t understand the “love thy neighbor as thyself” to have the same moral import as you, of being inconsistent with slavery. This extended into the NT. Jesus wasn’t pronouncing a new concept when he love thy neighbor as thyself was discussed. Yet, the NT has no explicit condemnation of slavery and Jesus didn’t condemn the OT laws regarding slavery, and neither did Paul.
I'm not claiming that "the authors" whoever you mean by that
It means “whoever you mean” when you used the word “authors” in a prior post. “[T]o many of the Bible's authors,...”
But if they don't agree with me, I think they are wrong.
An unequivocal point you’ve made in this thread. My focus has been upon your argument as to how and why you think “they are wrong.” You made the argument they are “wrong” because, inter alia, 1.) love your neighbor as yourself is inconsistent with slavery and 2.) the authors were remiss to not recognize what you claim is the moral reach of “love thy neighbor as thyself.”
As I said before, you merely claim “love thy neighbor as thyself” is morally inconsistent with slavery. Your evidence? Not much more than you say so, but with a reasoned argument. Your reasoned argument, however, doesn’t convincingly, for me anyway, explain away the laws regarding slavery.
The counter evidence? The fact slavery doesn’t make the naughty list in the OT or NT, and slavery co-existed with “love thy neighbor as thyself.” The purpose of the law, inter alia, and some of its unique, some say bizarre features, was to set the Jews apart from the godless heathens in their neighborhood. They were to be an example to the godless heathens in their neighborhood. They were inculcated from birth to know the law and follow the law. “'So you shall keep My statutes and My judgments, by which a man may live if he does them; I am the LORD.” They followed the laws for cleansing, offering, Passover, feasts, festivals, fabrics woven into clothing, harvesting crops, etcetera.
Of course, they lived under the threat of disobedience to the law risked a forced vacation in foreign lands. It isn’t likely such a people, Jews, obsessed with regulating so much of their own lives, right down to forbidding the mixture of fabric for clothing, regulating their lives and behaviors, likely missed what you say is the moral reach of “love thy neighbor as thyself” in regards to slavery.
Rather, they didn’t share your view of love thy neighbor as thyself, which explains why slavery co-existed with “love thy neighbor as thyself” and explains why slavery didn’t make their exhaustive naughty list. Your moral interpretation of love thy neighbor as thyself wasn’t their interpretation and wasn’t the meaning of the phrase back then.
All of which shows “love thy neighbor as thyself” in the Bible likely did not back then have or connote the moral meaning you attach to it today.
And I think you do, too, unless you're about to make a plea like DBT's to try and explain to me why "nice" slave owners are loving.
You do realize one need not resort to DBT’s argument?
The Bible does not comment as immoral some of the practices that existed back then, have persisted in some form today, whereas today we consider those practices as immoral. Gender inequality existed way back then, but the Bible does not say it is immoral. Equal pay, wage labor, labor conditions, are touched upon as immoral in the Bible. Having more than one wife wasn’t explicitly or tacitly forbidden in the OT or NT. Some practices were allowed but not preferred, like divorce.
There’s nothing in the Bible prohibiting a people, society, or nation from codifying slavery as illegal and forbidden.
I do believe slavery to be immoral but I’m not relying on the Bible to make this claim. The Bible doesn’t say slavery is immoral.