I agree that saying an illogical statement isn't illogical. The statement "nothing existed prior to the BB" is illogical. Of course there was something pre-BB- something does not arise from nothing.
I already explained why this isn't the case. It only seems illogical because you're insisting on applying cause and effect. However, when you insist on this with the very origins of the universe, you run into the problem of infinite regress, which is far more illogical than the notion that something can come from nothing... especially since we already know that things can actually come into existence without a definable cause to them; ala virtual particles (which despite the name, are actually real particles). Furthermore, there is the physics argument that any cause of the universe that falls outside of our space-time violates the principle of locality and therefore causality as we understand it.
Besides, as I explained, it very well might be that something 'existed' before the big bang. However, if that something caused the formation of our space-time, it would've existed *outside* of our space-time... and since existence is defined by the parameters of our space-time, we can not actually claim that said something has any sort of real existence. It would have to exist in a space-time of its own, but since that space-time would not be connected to ours it doesn't actually practically exist. Because of this, the rules of logic would dictate that there is no difference between whether or not it actually exists.
Given your statement, perhaps you don't understand the concept or its relevance to the issue. At a smaller scale there could be a whole different paradigm of interacting particles- before (maybe far before) the Planck epoch ended, many 10^10^10^10s tetrations of calculations could have been carried out by a first generation of particles that existed at a scale far different than the one we experience.
I understand the concept perfectly well. Which is also why I understand you're just talking out of your ass. It could very well be the case that within a planck unit or below the interaction of particles happens in entirely unexpected ways. However, to say that this somehow means there's a ridiculously large number of 'subjective years' before reaching the planck epoch is to A) not understand time, and B) not understand the word 'subjective'. The causal chain of events during the first second of existence would still have been, objectively, taking place over no more or less than a second. Just because you're cramming more events into a second doesn't mean it becomes something other than a second; subjectively OR objectively.
There could have been a virtually infinite number of actions and calculations before the Planck scale was crossed.
No, there couldn't. While time itself can be infinite in either direction, time must necessarily still be divided into finite units; there must ultimately be an indivisible unit of time; which makes it impossible for an infinite number of actions to have occurred between the big and before the end of the Planck Epoch. Besides, it doesn't particularly matter how many actions/interactions occurred during this time, since it doesn't fundamentally change the chain of events. One can, for example, understand the mechanics behind a thrown baseball without being able to map its exact location in space with nano-scale (or better) accuracy at any given point along its trajectory; which means that your initial objection, and the sole reason we're off on this tangent, is moot.
The reference to subjective years was to describe the amount of subjective time, for consciousness, that could have passed (although we all know how fast that time would pass looking at a pretty girl).
Which is nonsensical as I already explained. We know of no way consciousness could possibly exist during this time; and we have no need to postulate it.
Maybe you don't realize it, but the current attempts (that I am savvy to) to "probe the Planck epoch" involve looking for the effects of quantum gravity (in the CMB), and formulating a theoretical framework around it.
Since you're not going to find any non-wackadoodle claims about "experimental evidence that pierced the Planck epoch" anywhere, at this point in time, you're claim isn't supported whatsoever.
You said "we have pierced the Planck epoch experimentally", which isn't true. In fact, you apparently don't even know about the experiments that attempted (and failed) to "pierce" (gather information about) the early universe, which are focused on the effects of primordial gravitation.
I will concede that I chose my words poorly. I didn't mean to claim we'd solved anything, I was referring to the fact we're now actually capable of performing scientific experiments into this era; whereas it wasn't that long ago people were saying we'd never be able to. Though there's no such thing as a failed experiment; in a scientific experiment, failure is itself a meaningful result and therefore a success.
Just so you know, a theory of quantum gravitation is required to unify gravity with the other forces, to "pierce" the Planck Epoch.
Such as Loop Quantum Gravity.
The assumption that there are not many individual particles involved is ridiculous- I know you agree with this. How about the presupposition that they are not individuals, with their own sense of self?
...Is your goal actually to get me to dismiss you as a crazy person? Are you seriously positing that a particle is a 'who'? What could possibly possess you to put forth such a batshit crazy notion?
No, they react without a human observer. This has nothing to do with there being no observers. In fact, at the quantum level, there are many.
You're being nonsensical again.
In quantum mechanics an observer refers to a measurement device. A device is not a who, it's a what. In general relativity, 'observer' refers to either a person (who) or a machine (what) taking measurements. So that leaves us with what you appear to be talking about (or indeed, the only thing you could be talking about): an observer in Special Relativity, being simply a frame of reference from which events/objects are measured. This however, is not a who either. Indeed, it isn't even really a 'what' either since we're talking about an abstract concept there.
However you slice it, "who" makes no sense. But I suspect you understand this perfectly well and are just trying to obfuscate the issue by pretending we weren't both talking about 'who' as in a conscious entity; as in a creator-god.
Your comments are absolutely insane. If such a being exists, and you believe they exist, and it's logical to investigate how the being creates universes if they exist, how the hell is belief in the being going to discourage the pursuit of knowledge of universe creation? Seriously...
Some would say that insanity is trying the same thing over and over again and expecting a different result each time. Which is why I won't bother trying to explain it to you again. I refer you to my previous posts.
Say, for example, you believed what you say about religious people. It would indicate a fundamental misunderstanding of what the majority of religious people think.
No, it would demonstrate a pretty standard observation shared by a great many people.
I know a few- absolutely none are the way you describe.
So *your* anecdotal knowledge is something we should accept as true, but *mine* is not? The majority of the religious people I know are the way I describe, shouldn't that count for something? Why should my understanding of them be any less accurate than yours?
I could see them acting like they were that way to fuck with moronic atheists who were acting accusatory towards them,
Sure. Because what christian *wouldn't* respond to "moronic" accusations by atheists about how christians are opposed to science and objective investigation by pretending to perfectly fit the accusations! That'll show those atheists!
or to joke around with someone they thought understood their humor.
"No no, you don't understand! I was only pretending to be mentally deficient as a joke! DOOOH! ME HURT BRAIN THINKING HARD THINKINGS! LOL! FUNNY NO?"
I mean come on, really?
Believing in metaphysical naturalism doesn't lead to questions about inaccurate beliefs handed down about nature, just like believing in God doesn't lead to questions about inaccurate beliefs handed down about God.
And this analogy might actually make sense if... no wait, it really wouldn't ever make sense.