You are mistaken:
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BTW, the underlying causal processes are largely the same one's responsible for why blacks commit more of almost type of crime, except for crimes like insider trading and violating EPA rules and other crimes for which you need relatively high levels of wealth or power in order to have the opportunity to commit them.
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He did not claim that blacks committed a disproportionate number of crimes but that they commit more of almost any type of crime--except rich white people crime.
I would never intend to refer to raw frequency when comparing categories because such raw numbers unweighted by base rates have no meaning and are uninterpretable, and because the numbers from the OP to be explained are not raw numbers but frequencies. So, sure I failed to anticipate anyone would think that raw frequencies matter, and did not specify proportional numbers to avoid that interpretation. But whether the raw number or the proportional number in higher, either one refutes your argument and undermines your efforts to infer racism from the OP's 3:1 suspension stat. IOW, the distinction in this case between raw frequencies and proportional frequencies is irrelevant to the argument, which is why you are trying to use it as a red herring distraction since anything relevant refutes your position an shows the absurdity of your faith based denial of basic facts about predictors of behavioral problems and their relation to race.
So, the real question is how could any remotely reasonable person go to the effort to cite the stats your cited, without acknowledging that those very stats refute your own position and show that rule-violating "bad behavior" is generally much more frequent (2-5 times for most crimes) among blacks, which corresponds with black pre-schoolers being 3 times more likely to engage in behavior that gets them suspended (regardless of whether suspension is the optimal response to such behaviors in general).
You've tried to dodge the fact that any reasonable and non-racist attempt to explain the greater crimes rates for blacks relies upon the same kinds of SES, education, parent-related, and community-related variables that I posited to explain why black kids get suspended more often. Your pretense of denying the plausibility of how these variables might impact behavior requires you to deny that these variables or anything correlated with them have anything to do with other well established worse outcomes for blacks, including their higher crime rates and lower academic achievement.
So, I ask you "Do you acknowledge that variables other than skin color that include or are correlated with SES, education, or parental-resources have an impact upon the negative outcomes that blacks disproportionately experience, including criminal behavior and lower educational achievement?"
If your answer is "No", then what do you attribute these worse outcomes to?, because denying the impact of these variables is just what racists do who want to attribute the outcomes to the more direct impact of race itself.
If your answer is "Yes", then how could you possibly pretend not to see how and why such variables would impact negative outcomes related to bad behavior in school, given that the mechanisms would be largely the same as for those other outcomes?
Please answer these questions at the end rather than trying to throw another red herring into the mix to distract from the indefensibility of your position.
I haven't 'dodged' anything.
Yes you did and you continue to do so by refusing to answer the very specific and direct questions that I asked you to answer and that (unlike everything you did include in your replies to me) is actually relevant to the OP or to my argument that the 3:1 suspension are explicable via the same factors that you would likely endorse as causal impacts on the higher crime rates of blacks. Whether the higher crime rate also means higher raw numbers is completely irrelevant to understanding the causal factors behind the difference, so it is irrelevant to the OP, the point of my posts, or to your own position that those factors are not relevant. Thus, harping on that irrelevant distinction is a blatant attempt to distract from the indefensibility of your position and the obvious fact that you are denying causal factors that you fully realize are important but don't want to admit in this case because it undermines your political agenda.
You made a patently false statement and you haven't actually backed down from it.
Nonsense. I acknowledged that an aggregate raw frequency interpretation of my statement would be technically incorrect, despite the fact that a relative frequency interpretation is correct and just as strongly supports my argument and refutes yours thus it is an irrelevant distinction to the present discussion.
In fact, thanks for the tables you linked to, because they not only show a 2-4 times greater crime rate among blacks but they show that the greater rate is even higher when you look at kids under 18, making these stats even more relevant to the issue of school suspensions and even more supportive of my argument and undermining of yours (to the extent you've presented anything resembling an argument beyond the pretense of just blindly denying the causal influence of SES factors on behavioral problems).
This next paragraph is superfluous to any argument about the causes of the suspension rates, but since you clearly have no interest in an honest discussion of that topic and want to harp on the raw vs. relative frequency issue, I feel the need to respond to your false claim that my statement was "patently false".
My statement is not "patently false", but is just as true as the statement "Men are taller than women". It is a true because the statement refers to a quantitative difference between the two group distributions, and the mean difference is one such quantitative dimension, as is median, mode, greatest observed value within each distribution. On every one of these quantitative dimensions the statement is true as is my statement that "Blacks commit more crimes than whites". Only in your chosen interpretation of total raw number summed for each population is the statement about crimes incorrect. Your interpretation is not the only or "the" correct one, and if anything is abnormal and violates discourse assumptions among scientifically literate people who use my phrasing all the time and don't assume that raw summed frequencies for each population is what is meant by "more" because such a statistic is utterly meaningless and uninterpretable. As someone who doesn't just use science to accept and reject its conclusions based on coherence with my faith but who makes a living reading, writing, and peer reviewing science across disciplines, I know that such phrasing is used constantly and that qualifiers such as "on average" are often left out except when people are initially reporting original empirical results that they collected, and even within those papers additional references and discussion of those differences typically leave out any qualifiers and assume that the audience has the basic statistical literacy to interpret the "more" or "higher" as comparable central tendencies and not uncomparable total sum frequencies based upon highly unequal group sizes.
In fact, your statement is one frequently bandied about by conservative media and even main stream media.
No, its also the kind of phrasing "bandied about" in reference to countless variables in every area of science by scientifically literate people. There is no reason for conservatives to misrepresent the relative rates as though they are raw sums, because as I explained and your ignored, the relative rates support the greater crime among blacks just as much or even more than notions of raw sums would, so they have no incentive to hide the fact that it is true for relative rates but not sums. It is unfortunate that you and so many others without basic understanding of statistics construe such statements in the one way in which they are no longer valid and perhaps more caution should be taken by them (and me) when speaking to lay audiences, but it is a problem of interpretation of a statement with multiple potential meanings and not one of "patently false" statements as you claim.
the rate of victimization by crime is higher for blacks than it is for whites.
OF course blacks are victimized at higher rates, because about 85% of crimes are committed against people of the same race as they perpetrator. Since blacks are 2-4 times more likely to commit most crimes that means blacks will have a higher rate of victimization too. Once again, thanks for the additional data that further supports my argument and undermines yours. I can see why you are a bigger fan of personal anecdotes rather than valid scientific data, given how you tend to use valid stats to shoot your own arguments in the foot.
If you view a child as being more likely to misbehave, then you will see more misbehavior. Because of your own bias. Just as if you believe someone to be crazy, then almost anything they say or do seems crazy.
This just further illustrates your basic misunderstanding of what statistics mean and what they imply and how the should (or not) be used to draw inferences.
The fact that the rate of something is higher in one group does not imply that every individual in that group has that something, which is the false inference in your comment above. It does imply that a person selected at random about which nothing else is known, is more likely to have that something if they are from one group than another. BTW, application of this basic fact of reality is how every treatment in medicine or anywhere else is made effective and not harmful, so I suggest that you avoid medicine or really any policy making areas for all of our safety. These statistical differences bear logically upon various theories about the causes of the group level differences in rates of the variables, which is the point of this thread. They cannot be used in themselves to infer that a specific person has that something or why they have it if they do. The factors that cause group differences in likelihoods are often not the same things that cause an individual person to have that something. For example, biological differences between men and women are the primary factor causing different rates of breast cancers between those groups. Yet, having female biological is clearly not the major factor in why a specific women got cancer while another did not.
No one here has suggested that teachers make the same fallacious leap you have and use statistical realities that relate to likely causes of the suspension rates to then assume that every black kid is about to engage in suspension worthy misbehavior. In fact, I have pointed out that the vast majority of black pre-schoolers are not suspended, which in addition to refuting your fallacious leap also supports that race is not the primary factor and that it is other variables more child-specific that vary both within and between the kids of different racial groups.
Apparently you think that only by denying basic factual realities about differences in group rates can we avoid to fallacious leap to the conclusion that every black child is misbehaving. Not all of us have such trouble avoiding logical fallacies and have means to do so other than denying basic scientific facts.
And can you really justify a preschool deciding in advance that certain kids with certain skin tones misbehave and need harsher punishment?
No one here has said anything to imply that schools or teachers should do any such thing. Once again, your failure to reason has lead you to invalid conclusions that do not follow at all from their premises. Because you (understandably) do not like those conclusions, you then (irrationally and on faith) reject the objective factual premises upon which you (and you alone) have fallaciously lept to that conclusion.
It is actually your denial of environmental influences on behavior (which the root of our entire exchange) that is likely to lead to such policies where black kids are just assumed to be "bad" with no viable preventative measures. The denial of the influences on behavior of environmental factors on which blacks and whites differ leaves on 2 options: Either 1) the 3:1 difference is entirely due to teacher bias in which case nearly all teachers, including all black teachers, would need to be engaged in rampant racism against black kids on a daily basis, or some of the difference is due to differences in bad behavior which since, according to you, cannot be due to environmental factors, must be due to the inherent and direct influence of biological race on bad behavior.
In contrast, my argument is that the difference is likely due to a host of environmental factors, some of which can be addressed with pre-emptive measures including aiding parental resources. In addition, my rational application of statistical facts about rates of bad behavior suggests that even though the rates may differ between groups, the large majority of kids of all groups do not do anything suspension worthy, even by the current perhaps knee-jerk standards. Therefore, applying these stats means the rational presumption should be one of innocence and that any ambiguous behavior should be assumed to be unworthy of suspension unless there is clear evidence otherwise.
You see, if you understand facts, statistics, and science, then you do not need to blindly deny them and turn to anecdotes to defend your prefered policy. You can actually acknowledge facts, even unpleasant ones, then use them to craft a preferred policy that actually is effective at achieving change rather than just making you feel good by denying any unpleasant realities. Facts do not ever necessitate any policy because no "is" every necessitates and "ought". Sadly, most political activists on both the left and the right don't grasp this, and so they spend more time denying and distorting relevant fact and science rather than applying it.