bilby
Fair dinkum thinkum
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- Mar 6, 2007
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Well how much is enough to count? I don't think even the USSR managed to entirely eliminate all private production.Is this the Ike Vallon theory of collectivism -- one drop of collective ownership makes the economy collectively owned in these parts? The mid-C20th UK owned about 20% of the economy.Mid C20th UK? Many large industries were collectively owned - British Steel, British Coal, British Gas, British Rail, British Overseas Airline Corporation (later merged with British European Airwatlts to form British Airways), British Shipbuilders, Central Electricity Generating Board, National Express Coaches, to name but a few.As for experience, when has there ever been a country that collectivized ownership of the means of production and still allowed free speech?
All of these things are spectra. There are no working examples of an economy whose 'means of production' are eithef 100% or 0% privately owned.
Well they arrived in that sequence for radio, and later television, so if they are related, the latter cannot have caused the former.Those two characteristics might not be unrelated...There was also the BBC - which one might suspect would stifle free speech, but which not only had a strong policy of independence from government on editorial matters, but also had private sector competitors.