He also (again wisely imo) doesn't get much into citing randomness facilitating free will, because it's hard to see how it does or even could, when you dig down into that idea.
On the other hand, I can easily see how randomness facilitates free will. At least until someone imposes an overly specific and self-limiting definition of what 'free' means that defines it in such a way that will can never be free.
Let's take as the starting point that 'free will' very simply means that it is possible for the same entity, under the same starting conditions, to select a different action from all possible actions in two different runs of a particular decision-making scenario. In short: actions by sufficiently intelligent entities are not perfectly predictable.
To me, that is what free will means.
All you need to do for this to be true is to allow a very small amount of randomness in the process, and a condition of sufficiency to be met for an action to be taken.
So, let's set up a very simple scenario, with the assumption that randomness actually exists in the world.
Let's say you're going to time how long it takes for 10 electrons to pass the the right slit in a two-slit experiment. You're going to start the flow of electrons, and you're going to start your timer. When you reach a count of 10 electrons, you're going to stop the timer. Then you're going to report the time it takes. Pretty straightforward, right?
For argument's sake, let's assume we've mastered time travel. And you're going to rewind the clock after you've timed the electrons... and you're going to rewind it 100 times. Do you think you'll get the exact same time for each of those 100 runs that occur under exactly the same starting conditions? It might seem easy to say "yes, they're the exact same starting conditions, so the time will be exactly the same each time". But will it really? All it takes is a tiny change at the subatomic level to divert one electron during any of those 100 runs to end up with a different time. That's plausible, right? And well within the realm of the uncertainty principle. So it's entirely possible for that measurement to be stochastic - that is to say, not perfectly deterministic.
But that only applies at the subatomic level, right? It certainly doesn't apply at the macro level, when we're talking about human brains, right?
Here's where I say... are you certain?
Let's assume, for argument's sake, that decisions within a brain are made based on the similarity of current conditions to the set of previously experienced conditions and the activities made as a result of those conditions, and a measure of how effective those activities were in producing a net beneficial outcome. And let's also say that the decision-making algorithm within the brain leverages a sufficiency condition across those two measures: How similar the current conditions are to previous conditions, and how beneficial the outcomes are. Let's also assume, for the sake of argument, that the decision-making algorithm within the brain works in series fashion: It selects a memory of a previous condition and outcome, compares that previous condition to the current condition, determines if the previous condition is
"enough like" the current condition to be a valid comparison, then determines whether the previous associated outcome is
"beneficial enough" to warrant adoption in this current condition.
How is the first memory chosen? Let's assume, for argument's sake, that the first memory chosen is the memory along the path of least resistance for the electron spat out by the neuron engaged that is prompting the use of the decision-making algorithm in the brain. Once that first path is taken, the next electron will take the path of second-least resistance. And it will keep repeating until a sufficiently similar memory is accessed that has a sufficiently beneficial outcome associated with it.
That's a lot of words, but it's actually not all that complex a concept. The math is messy as all hell, and I definitely don't want to have to do that math... but the concept isn't all that difficult if you can make it through the WoT.
Now... is it plausible that a small fluctuation can introduce just enough randomness into the path of least resistance to alter the order in which memories are accessed on two hypothetical runs with identical starting conditions? I don't see why not. It takes only the very tiniest shift to make that happen. And the implication of that is that in two otherwise identical runs of that decision process, the order in which memories are accessed can be different. And if the order in which the memories are accessed is different, then it's also possible that the memory that meets the sufficiency criteria for both similarity of conditions and positiveness of outcome will be different.
All it takes is a very small variance in the pathway traced through the brain in order for a different conclusion to be reached.
Do you think it is impossible for such minute variances to exist? Do you believe that true randomness is impossible?