skepticalbip said:
Absolutely it is the States that make the choice. But the Constitution requires that the States shall have a republican form of government which means that it is popular vote that informs the State and so the electors, not the Governor's whims.
First, no, the states do not make the choice. As I've been saying, electors do.
Second, a republican form of government does not require direct democracy, or direct elections of elected officials, so why not decision by governor (or by lawmakers)?
Third, assuming for the sake of the argument that your interpretation is correct and that the US Constitution requirement that the states have a republican form of government entails that the state may not establish that the governor shall decide how the electors would vote, then a similar interpretation would imply also that the votes of faithless electors are void. Else, why would a choice by the whims of the governor be against the republican form of government, but a choice by the whims of the electors not be against the republican form of government? Or is there a problem because that's the governor? What about a choice by lawmakers?
skepticalbip said:
None of this establishes how the electors are empowered. Your interpretation would mean that the vote of the State's population is superfluous or meaningless. Someone like George Soros who loves to cause turmoil could simply pay off 271 electors to vote for David Duke which would make him the President and there would be nothing that anyone could do but accept it. This would cost Soros less than he spent during the last campaign.
That's an appeal to consequences. If it's a bad result, so be it, but your interpretation would entail that
some Constitutional dispositions make no sense.
But why would you believe that?
It's not as though the Constitution says so. The constitution says the electors choose. And it's not as if the people who wrote the constitution were thinking of a popular vote like the ones that are held nowadays.
Take a look at one of the clauses I quoted: "but no Senator or Representative, or person holding an office of trust or profit under the United States, shall be appointed an elector."
Why would anyone include such a clause?
To prevent the federal government from unduly influencing the choices
made by the electors. If the electors aren't the ones who choose, the clause makes no sense.
Take a look at the second one: "3. The Congress may determine the time of choosing the electors, and the day on which they shall give their votes; which day shall be the same throughout the United States."
Why would the day be the same?
One reason would be to prevent results in one state from influencing results in other states, and try to prevent concentrations of power.
But if states can choose - rather than electors -, then there is no reason whatsoever to demand that the electors shall cast their votes on the same day: after the election of the electors, the electoral college would be a mere formality.
Now, you might say the US system is a bad one under my interpretation, vulnerable to corruption, etc. I would reply that my interpretation is correct for the reasons I've been giving, regardless of how bad the system might be.